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Cisco Discovery - DCompNtwk Chapter 8 - V.4 .

Which mechanism is used to create a floating static route?
?administrative distance
cost
hop count
passive interface


IPSec operates at which layer of the OSI model?
application
?network
datalink
transport


Which is true regarding Frame Relay LMI?
?There are three LMI types standardized by ANSI, ITU-T, and Cisco.
Routers at each end of a Frame Relay virtual circuit must always use the same LMI type.
The LMI type must be manually configured.
The only function of LMI is to verify the connection between the router and the Frame Relay switch.

Which statement identifies the IP address design for subinterfaces that are configured for a Frame Relay network?
Multipoint configurations require the IP address of each subinterface on each router to be in its own subnet.
?Multipoint configurations require IP addresses for each subinterface on each router to be a part of the same subnet.
Point-to-point configurations require IP addresses for each subinterface on each router to be a part of the same subnet.
Point-to-point configurations do not require IP addresses on each subinterface on each router.
Multipoint configurations do not require IP addresses on each subinterface on each router.


Which three algorithms can be used to encrypt user data in an IPSec VPN framework? (Choose three.)
?3DES
?AES
Diffie-Hellman
?DES
ESP
SHA


Which flag is set by a Frame Relay switch to inform the receiving station that congestion was experienced?
BECN
DE
?FECN
FCS


Refer to the exhibit. The complete configuration of a Frame Relay interface on the Chicago router is shown. How does the Chicago router know which DLCI is mapped to the IP address of the remote router?
DE
CIR
FECN
?Inverse ARP


What statement correctly defines the purpose of the split horizon rule?
marks the route unreachable in a routing update that is sent to other routers
?prevents routers from advertising a network through the interface from which the update came
prevents routers from accepting higher cost routes to networks previously marked as inaccessible before the timer expires
limits the number of hops a packet can traverse through the network before it should be discarded


9. Which PVC status suggests that the router recognizes the DLCI configured on its interface as being present on the Frame Relay switch, but the PVC associated with the DLCI is not capable of end-to-end communication?
active
deleted
?inactive
idle


10. Refer to the exhibit. Which router command is used to associate a Layer 2 address with the corresponding Layer 3 address?
Miller(config-if)#frame-relay map ip 172.16.150.1 110
Miller(config-if)#frame-relay map ip 172.16.150.1 112
?Miller(config-if)#frame-relay map ip 172.16.150.2 110
Miller(config-if)#frame-relay map ip 172.16.150.2 112


A network administrator issued the command show frame-relay pvc. The response from the router shows the status of a PVC as deleted. What is the reason for this status?
The DLCI is using the wrong LMI type.
The DLCI is usable but has little activity.
The DLCI is programmed in the switch but the circuit is not usable.
?The DLCI configured on the CPE device does not match the DLCI.


What is one benefit of using a network simulation software package?
?The network design can be tested before it is actually implemented.
Simulation software packages are quickly updated to support new network technologies and devices.
Simulated devices have the same features as actual devices, allowing for detection of all potential problems.
Software packages can simulate all possible network traffic conditions, giving an accurate prediction of network performance.


What are two components a network designer considers when planning a VPN? (Choose two.)
?encryption algorithm for privacy and security
?encapsulation protocol to use when creating the VPN tunnel
switching technology to optimize VPN WAN throughput
tunneling technology for guarding against data corruption
routing protocol on the gateway for optimum performance


When identifying VPN requirements for endpoint users, what care must be taken to protect the network when remote users log in from unsecured public locations?
Ensure that the user has VPN client software that allows access to all internal resources.
Ensure that the VPN user traffic does not slow down internally sourced traffic on the network.
Ensure that there are no obstacles to hamper the users from accessing all internal resources.
?Ensure that remote users can only access network resources that are appropriate to their job function.

Which two components are key elements when implementing a VPN? (Choose two.)
concentration
?encryption
prioritization
compression
?encapsulation


What tool can help ease the configuration of VPN servers on routers?
?Cisco SDM
PIX Firewall
Cisco VPN Concentrator
Cisco Adaptive Security Appliances


What is used to identify the path to the next frame-relay switch in a Frame Relay network?
CIR
?DLCI
FECN
BECN


Which two statements are true regarding VPN security? (Choose two.)
Users may only establish a VPN connection from secure locations and never from public areas.
Users that connect to a network through a VPN do not have to log in to resources on the network.
?Users that connect to a network through a VPN are are considered trusted users on the network.
?Users may establish a VPN connection from unsecure locations such as airports and hotel lobbies.
Users that connect to a network through a VPN should have access to all the resources on the network.

Refer to the exhibit. What is placed in the address field of a frame that will travel from the Orlando office to the DC office?
MAC address of the Orlando router
MAC address of the DC router
192.168.1.25
192.168.1.26
?DLCI 100
DLCI 200


Two directly connected routers are able to ping each other through the Serial 0/0/0 interfaces. A network administrator changes the encapsulation on one router to PPP, and the other is left at the default value. What statement would appear in the output of the show interfaces command issued on one of the routers?
Serial 0/0/0 is up, line protocol is up
Serial 0/0/0 is down, line protocol is down
?Serial 0/0/0 is up, line protocol is down
Serial 0/0/0 is down, line protocol is up
Serial 0/0/0 is administratively down, line protocol is down

Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true about the configuration shown for R2?
?R2 is configured as the Frame Relay switch.
R2 is configured as the main site in a multipoint Frame Relay WAN prototype.
R2 is configured as the main site in a point-to-point Frame Relay WAN prototype.
R2 is configured as a remote site in a multipoint Frame Relay WAN prototype.
R2 is configured as a remote site in a point-to-point Frame Relay WAN prototype.


A company uses serial interfaces on its border router to connect to branch offices through WAN connections. The security policy dictates that the encapsulation should use PPP with authentication protocol CHAP. Which statement is true about the configuration requirement of CHAP?
?Both the username and password are case sensitive.
Neither the username nor the password is case sensitive.
The username is case sensitive but the password is not case sensitive.
The password is case sensitive but the username is not case sensitive.


Which two statements about split tunnels are true? (Choose two.)
Local LAN printing will use the VPN tunnel.
The traffic load on the VPN server is increased.
?Traffic to the corporate network will be encrypted.
There is a reduced security risk to the corporate network.
All traffic travels across the VPN tunnel from client to server.
Traffic to public web sites and general Internet navigation is not encrypted.


An IP address has been assigned to the S0/0/0 interface of a new Cisco router. The administrator wishes to quickly test basic connectivity with the serial interface of an adjoining Cisco router via the use of the default WAN protocol. Which WAN protocol will be used for this test?
PPP
Frame Relay
DSL
?HDLC
ATM


Which two statements about split tunnels are true? (Choose two.)
Local LAN printing will use the VPN tunnel.
The traffic load on the VPN server is increased.
?Traffic to the corporate network will be encrypted.
There is a reduced security risk to the corporate network.
All traffic travels across the VPN tunnel from client to server.
?Traffic to public web sites and general Internet navigation is not encrypted.

Cisco Discovery - Cisco Discovery - DRSEnt Module 7 - V.4 .

Why are Network Control Protocols used in PPP?
to establish and terminate data links
to provide authentication capabilities to PPP
to manage network congestion and to allow quality testing of the link
• to allow multiple Layer 3 protocols to operate over the same physical link


What is the data transmission rate for the DS0 standard?
44 kb/s
• 64 kb/s
1.544 Mb/s
44.736 Mb/s


In which two layers of the OSI model are key differences found between a LAN and a WAN. (Choose two.)
• Layer 1
• Layer 2
Layer 3
Layer 4
Layer 6
Layer 7


Which statement is true about the Cisco implementation of the HDLC protocol?
It supports authentication.
It has a universally compatible frame format.
• It is the default encapsulation for serial interfaces on Cisco routers.
It does not support multiple protocols across a single link.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has a connectivity problem between the serial interfaces of Merida and Vargas. What is the cause of the problem?
Authentication is required on the serial link.
• The encapsulation is misconfigured.
The IP addresses are on different subnets.
The serial interface on Vargas is shutdown.
The loopback interfaces on both routers are not configured.

Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true about the exhibited output?
LCP is in the process of negotiating a link.
LCP and NCP are waiting for CHAP authentication to complete.
LCP negotiation has completed successfully, but NCP negotiation is in progress.
• LCP and NCP negotiation is complete, and the data link service is available to carry packets.


Which three statements are true regarding LCP? (Choose three.)
• It is responsible for negotiating link establishment.
It negotiates options for Layer 3 protocols running over PPP.
It uses MD5 encryption while negotiating link-establishment parameters.
• It terminates the link upon user request or the expiration of an inactivity timer.
• It can test the link to determine if link quality is sufficient to bring up the link.
It monitors the link for congestion and dynamically adjusts the acceptable window size.


Why are Frame Relay paths referred to as virtual?
Frame Relay PVCs are created and discarded on demand.
The connections between PVC endpoints act like dialup circuits.
There are no dedicated circuits to and from the Frame Relay carrier.
• The physical circuits inside the Frame Relay cloud do not contain exclusive links for a specific Frame Relay connection.


What best describes the use of a data-link connection identifier (DLCI)?
• an address identifying a virtual circuit
a logical address identifying the DCE device
an address identifying a Layer 3 service across a Frame Relay network
a logical address identifying the physical interface between a router and a Frame Relay switch


What two services allow the router to dynamically map data link layer addresses to network layer addresses Frame Relay network? (Choose two.)
ARP
ICMP
Proxy ARP
• Inverse ARP
• LMI status messages


Which three statements describe functions of the Point-to-Point Protocol with regards to the OSI model?(Choose three.)
operates at all layers of the OSI model
• provides a mechanism to multiplex several network layer protocols
• can be configured on both synchronous and asynchronous serial interfaces
uses Layer 3 of the OSI model to establish and maintain a session between devices
• uses the data link layer to configure such options as error detection and compression
uses network control protocols to test and maintain connectivity between devices

At what physical location does the responsibility for a WAN connection change from the user to the service provider?
demilitarized zone (DMZ)
• demarcation point
local loop
cloud


What does a Frame Relay switch use to inform the sender that there is congestion?
FECN
• BECN
DE
FCS


Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true about the debug output?
R2 is using PAP instead of CHAP.
• The routers have different CHAP passwords configured.
The administrator performed a shutdown on the R2 PPP interface during negotiation.
The Layer 3 protocol negotiation caused the connection failure.


Which two statements describe the function of time-division multiplexing? (Choose two.)
• Multiple data streams share one common channel.
Conversations that require extra bandwidth receive any unused time slices.
Time slots are utilized on a first-come, first-served basis.
• Time slots go unused if a sender has nothing to transmit.
Priority can be dedicated to one data source.

When customers use credit cards to make purchases at a small business, a modem is heard dialing a telephone number to transfer the transaction data to the central office. What type of WAN serial connection is in use?
leased line
point-to-point
• circuit switched
packet switched


Which best describes data communications equipment (DCE)?
serves as data source and/or destination
responsible for negotiating windowing and acknowledgements
physical devices such as protocol translators and multiplexers
• equipment that forwards data and is responsible for the clocking signal


Permanent virtual circuits and switched virtual circuits are both part of which option for WAN connectivity?
leased line
cell switching
• packet switching
circuit switching


Which field of a frame uses error detection mechanisms to verify that the frame is not damaged intransit?
• FCS
MTU
flag
control
protocol


What occurs in the encapsulation process as a data packet moves from a LAN across a WAN?
• The Layer 2 encapsulation changes to a format that is appropriate for the WAN technology.
The Layer 3 encapsulation changes to a format that is appropriate for the WAN technology.
Both Layer 2 and Layer 3 encapsulation change to a technology that is appropriate for the WAN.
Both Layer 2 and Layer 3 encapsulation remain constant as the data packet travels throughout the network.


Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is configuring R1 to connect to R2, which is a non-Cisco router. Which encapsulation method will need to be configured for communication to occur?
HDLC
HSSI
ISDN
IPCP
• PPP


A company is implementing dialup services for remote workers to connect to the local network. The company uses multiple Layer 3 protocols and requires authentication for security. Which protocol should be used for this remote access?
LMI
• PPP
HDLC
Frame Relay


Which two options can LCP negotiate? (Choose two.)
• compression
• authentication • dynamic flow control
network layer address for IP
connection-oriented or connectionless communication methods

What statement best describes cell switching?
It uses a dedicated path between endpoints.
It creates a permanent physical link between two points.
It uses DLCIs to identify virtual circuits.
• It creates fixed-length packets that traverse virtual circuits.
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Cisco Discovery - DRSEnt Module 6 - V.4 .

Refer to the exhibit. What statement describes the DR/BDR relationship of the HQ router?

HQ is the DR.
HQ is the BDR.
?HQ is a DROTHER.
HQ is a member of an NBMA network.


Which two features are associated with Frame Relay OSPF point-to-multipoint environments? (Choose two.)

?A DR is not elected.
The OSPF priority value determines the active DR on the Frame Relay link.
?OSPF neighbor routers are statically defined.
The link types are identified as broadcast multiaccess.
The BDR will have a router ID whose value is greater than the DR router ID.


Refer to the exhibit. How was the OSPF default gateway entry for R2 determined?

Default routes are automatically injected by OSPF into all advertisements.
A static default gateway route is defined in the configuration of R2.
?The default-information originate command is applied on R1.
The ISP defines the gateway of last resort and automatically passes it to R1 and R2.
The ip default-gateway command is applied on R2.


What is always required for OSPF routers to share routing information?

designated routers
a backup designated router
?neighbor adjacencies
an NBMA network topology
links that are configured on the 224.0.0.0 network


Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has implemented OSPF and the network has converged. If all router interfaces are enabled and functional, what route will OSPF view as lowest cost when moving frames from Host3 to Host1?

R3 to R4 to R1
R3 to R1
?R3 to R2 to R1
R3 to R5 to R2 to R1


Refer to the exhibit. Which commands configure router A for OSPF?

router ospf 1
network 192.168.10.0

?router ospf 1
network 192.168.10.64 0.0.0.63 area 0
network 192.168.10.192 0.0.0.3 area 0

router ospf 1
network 192.168.10.64 255.255.255.192
network 192.168.10.192 255.255.255.252

router ospf 1
network 192.168.10.0 area 0


Refer to the exhibit. Which network statement configures the home router to allow all the interfaces to participate in OSPF?

network 10.0.0.0 0.3.255.255 area 0
network 10.8.0.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
?network 10.8.0.0 0.3.255.255 area 0
network 10.10.0.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
network 10.12.0.0 0.3.255.255 area 0


Which statement is true regarding OSPF DR and BDR elections?

A new DR/BDR election occurs each time a new OSPF neighbor is added.
?The router with the highest OSPF priority setting wins the election for DR.
The default priority value for a router connected to a multi-access network is 0.
The router with the highest MAC address is elected as the DR when the default priority values are used.


Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator would like only the 172.16.32.0 network advertised to Router1. Which OSPF network command accomplishes this?

Router2(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.0.15 area 0
Router2(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.15.255 area 0
?Router2(config-router)# network 172.16.32.0 0.0.15.255 area 0
Router2(config-router)# network 172.16.32.0 0.0.255.255 area 0


Which two statements describe the operation of link-state routing protocols? (Choose two.)

?All routers in the same area have identical link-state databases when converged.
Routing loops are prevented by running the Diffusing Update Algorithm (DUAL).
Link-state routers send frequent periodic updates of the entire routing table.
Reliable Transport Protocol (RTP) is used to deliver and receive LSAs.
?Calculating the shortest path for each destination is accomplished with the SPF algorithm.


Refer to the exhibit. Routers A, B, and C are part of the existing OSPF network. Router D has been added to the network. All routers are running OSPF and have the indicated priorities applied to the interface. What is the DR/BDR status immediately after router D is added to the existing network?

An election is forced and router D wins the DR election.
?The DR and BDR do not change until the next election.
An election is forced and the existing BDR becomes the DR.
The router with the highest router ID becomes the new BDR.


Which two statements describe the use of OSPF DR/BDR elections? (Choose two.)

Elections are always optional.
Elections are required in all WAN networks.
Elections are required in point-to-point networks.
?Elections are required in broadcast multiaccess networks.
?Elections are sometimes required in NBMA networks.


Refer to the exhibit. As part of an OSPF network, R1 and R2 are trying to become adjacent neighbors. Although it appears that the two systems are communicating, neither of the routing tables include OSPF routes received from its neighbor. What could be responsible for this situation?

R1 and R2 are not on the same subnet.
The Process IDs on each router do not match.
?The timer intervals on the routers do not match.
The value set for the Transmit Delay time on both routers is too low.


Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the value 128 shown in bold?

?It is the OSPF cost metric.
It is the OSPF administrative distance.
It is the value assigned by the Dijkstra algorithm that designates the distance in hops to the network.
It is the value assigned to an interface that is used by the DUAL algorithm to determine the metric.


Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the configuration commands added on router B?

allows router A to form an adjacency with router B
?provides a stable OSPF router ID on router B
provides a method of testing router traffic
creates the OSPF adjacency table on router B

Refer to the exhibit. The command ip route 10.16.1.64 255.255.255.252 s0/0/0 is entered into the router. Why does network 10.16.1.64/30 appear in the routing table in addition to network 10.16.1.64/27?

?The router views 10.16.1.64/30 and 10.16.1.64/27 as two different networks. 
The static route is used as a backup route for packets destined for 10.16.1.64/27.
The AD for static routes is lower than the AD for OSPF routes.
The static route metric is lower than the OSPF metric for the 10.16.1.64/27 network.


What is the primary difference between link-state protocols and distance vector protocols with regard to route calculation?

?Distance vector protocols take existing routes from their neighbors and add to them. Link-state protocols independently calculate full routes.
Link-state protocols calculate and pass full routing tables to all routers in their associated areas, and distance vector protocols do not.
When determining invalid routes, link-state protocols use split horizon for all route computations. Distance vector protocols use reverse poisoning.
Distance vector protocols require more CPU and RAM for route calculations than link-state protocols require.


What range of networks are advertised in the OSPF updates by the command Router1(config-router)# network 192.168.0.0 0.0.15.255 area 0?

192.168.0.0/24 through 192.168.0.15/24
?192.168.0.0/24 through 192.168.15.0/24
192.168.15.0/24 through 192.168.31.0/24
192.168.15.0/24 through 192.168.255.0/24
192.168.16.0/24 through 192.168.255.0/24


Refer to the exhibit. When establishing adjacency relationships, which IP address would router A use to send hello packets to router B?

10.11.0.1
10.11.0.2
10.11.0.255
?224.0.0.5
255.255.255.255


Refer to the exhibit. Which router will be elected the DR and which will become the BDR?

R1 will be DR and R2 will be BDR.
?R1 will be DR and R3 will be BDR.
R2 will be DR and R1 will be BDR.
R2 will be DR and R3 will be BDR.
R3 will be DR and R2 will be BDR.
R3 will be DR and R1 will be BDR.


When compared to a distance vector routing protocol, what is a benefit of the hierarchical design approach that is used in large OSPF networks?

simpler configuration
reduction of router processing requirements
?isolation of network instability 
less complex network planning


What are two advantages of using a link-state routing protocol instead of a distance vector routing protocol? (Choose two.)

The topology database eliminates the need for a routing table.
Frequent periodic updates are sent to minimize the number of incorrect routes in the topological database.
?Routers have direct knowledge of all links in the network and how they are connected.
?After the initial LSA flooding, routers generally require less bandwidth to communicate changes in a topology.
A link-state routing protocol requires less router processor power.


If a network has converged, what is true about the link-state database held by each router in the same OSPF area?

?Each router has a link-state database containing the same status information.
Each router has a different link-state database depending on its position within the network.
The link-state database is stored in a designated router and is accessed by each router in the area as needed.
The link-state database in each router only contains information about adjacent routers and the status of their links.


Refer to the exhibit. RTRC was recently configured and is not sending the proper OSPF routes to RTRB, as shown in the RTRB routing table. Based on the RTRC configuration, what is most likely the problem?

RTRC interfaces are administratively shut down.
The OSPF process ID for RTRC does not match the process ID used on RTRB.
The interface addresses on RTRC overlap with other addresses in the network.
?The OSPF routing configuration on RTRC has a missing or incorrect network statement.

DRSEnt Module 4 - V.4

A network administrator is asked to design a new addressing scheme for a corporate network. Presently, there are 500 users at the head office, 200 users at sales, 425 at manufacturing, and 50 at the research site. Which statement defines the correct VLSM addressing map with minimal waste using the 172.16.0.0/16 network?

	172.16.0.0/20 head office
172.16.1.0/21 manufacturing
172.16.1.0/22 sales
172.16.3.0/26 research

 
	172.16.48.0/19 head office
172.16.16.0/20 manufacturing
172.16.48.128 sales
172.16.48.0/26 research

 
	? 172.16.0.0/23 head office
? 172.16.2.0/23 manufacturing
? 172.16.4.0/24 sales
? 172.16.5.0/26 research

 
	172.16.2.0/22 head office
172.16.3.0/23 manufacturing
172.16.4.0/26 sales
172.16.4.128/25 research


What range of networks are summarized by the address and mask, 192.168.32.0/19?

	192.168.0.0/24 - 192.168.32.0/24
	192.168.0.0/24 - 192.168.31.0/24
	192.168.32.0/24 – 192.168.64.0/24
	? 192.168.32.0/24 – 192.168.63.0/24


What is a characteristic of a classful routing protocol on the network?

	All subnets are seen by all routers.
	CIDR addresses are advertised.
	A subnet can be further subnetted down and advertised correctly.
	? Updates received by a router in a different major network have the default mask applied.


Refer to the exhibit. All networks that are shown have a /24 prefix. Assuming that all routes have been discovered by all routers in the network, which address will successfully summarize only the networks that are shown?
CCNA Discovery 3: DRSEnt Module 4 - V.4

	192.168.8.0/21
	192.168.8.0/24
	192.168.16.0/20
	? 192.168.16.0/21
	192.168.16.0/24

Refer to the exhibit. Which two are valid VLSM network addresses for the serial link between Router1 and Router2? (Choose two.)
CCNA Discovery 3: DRSEnt Module 4 - V.4

	? 192.168.1.4/30
	? 192.168.1.8/30
	192.168.1.90/30
	192.168.1.101/30
	192.168.1.190/30

A network engineer is implementing a network design using VLSM for network 192.168.1.0/24. After subnetting the network, the engineer has decided to take one of the subnets, 192.168.1.16/28 and subnet it further to provide for point-to-point serial link addresses. What is the maximum number of subnets that can be created from the 192.168.1.16/28 subnet for serial connections?

	1
	2
	4
	? 6
	8
	16
	

What are two benefits of implementing a VLSM addressing scheme? (Choose two.)

	? allows efficient use of address space
	? supports hierarchical addressing capability
	supports only one subnet mask length throughout the entire network
	allows efficient use of larger routing tables to eliminate the need for route summarization
	solves the problem of discontiguous networks with classful routing protocols

How many addresses will be available for dynamic NAT translation when a router is configured with the following commands?

Router(config)#ip nat pool TAME 209.165.201.23 209.165.201.30 netmask 255.255.255.224
Router(config)#ip nat inside source list 9 pool TAME

	7
	? 8
	9
	10
	24
	31
	

When running NAT, what is the purpose of address overloading?

	limit the number of hosts that can connect to the WAN
	? allow multiple inside addresses to share a single global address
	force hosts to wait for an available address
	allow an outside host to share inside global addresses

Refer to the exhibit. Which two IP addresses could be assigned to the hosts that are shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
CCNA Discovery 3: DRSEnt Module 4 - V.4

	192.168.65.31
	192.168.65.32
	? 192.168.65.35
	192.168.65.60
	192.168.65.63
	192.168.65.64
	

What two pieces of information can be determined from the host IP address of 192.168.2.93/29? (Choose two.)

	? The number of bits borrowed for the subnetwork is 5.
	The number of usable hosts for each subnetwork is 14.
	? The /29 translates to a subnet mask of 255.255.255.248.
	The network address for this host is 192.168.2.80/29.
	The broadcast address for this network is 192.168.2.94/29.

Refer to the graphic. A technician is investigating why H1 and H2 cannot communicate. What problem should the technician discover?
CCNA Discovery 3: DRSEnt Module 4 - V.4

	Sw1 has an incorrect default gateway.
	? H1 and H2 are on different subnetworks.
	Sw1 needs an IP address assigned in the same subnetwork.
	The H2 IP address should be changed to 192.168.22.34/28.

Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output of the show ip nat translations command, which kind of address translation is in effect on this router?
CCNA Discovery 3: DRSEnt Module 4 - V.4
static
	public
	? overload
	private

Which two addresses could be used as private IP addresses in a LAN? (Choose two.)

	? 10.10.1.200
	? 172.31.100.254
	172.64.10.10
	192.165.2.1
	192.169.1.1

A network technician has been asked to implement a hierarchical addressing scheme. Which two statements could describe the hierarchical addressing scheme structure to the technician? (Choose two.)

	? A hierarchical addressing structure logically groups networks into smaller subnetworks.
	A hierarchical network operates most efficiently without a specific address structure.
	Route summarization will operate efficiently in a hierarchical network without a hierarchical addressing scheme.
	? A hierarchical addressing structure can simplify network management and improve scalability.
	An effective hierarchical addressing scheme must begin with a classful network at the distribution layer.

Which two statements differentiate between flat and hierarchical networks? (Choose two.)

	In a hierarchical design, the network consists of all Layer 2 devices.
	In a hierarchical design, a network consists of a single broadcast domain.
	? In a flat network, all hosts can be reached without having to pass through a router.
	In a flat network, hosts using multiple broadcast domains pass through routers.
	? In a hierarchical design, a network is divided into layers to reduce congestion and the size of failure domains.
	

What two advantages does CIDR provide to a network? (Choose two.)

	? reduced routing table size
	dynamic address assignment
	automatic route redistribution
	? reduced routing update traffic
	automatic summarization at classful boundaries

How does a router keep track of which inside local address is used when NAT overload is configured?

	The router adds an additional bit to the source IP address and maintains a separate table.
	The router modifies the QoS field.
	? The router uses TCP or UDP port numbers.
	The router uses a manual entry that is created and maintained in the database of the router.
	

When configuring NAT on a Cisco router, what is the inside local IP address?

	the IP address of an inside host as it appears to the outside network
	the IP address of an outside host as it appears to the inside network
	? the IP address of an inside host as it appears to the inside network
	the configured IP address assigned to a host in the outside network

Refer to the exhibit. What solution would solve the discontiguous network problem and prevent the routers from advertising misleading networks?
CCNA Discovery 3: DRSEnt Module 4 - V.4

	? Turn automatic summarization off and manually summarize the routes at the classful boundary.
	Allow automatic summarization to send the most optimal route.
	Change the routing protocol to a classless routing protocol, such as RIPv1.
	Change the LAN addressing schemes on R2 and R3 to use VLSM since it supports discontiguous networks.

Which two IP addresses represent the network and broadcast addresses for the network that includes host 192.168.100.130/27? (Choose two.)

	network 192.168.100.0
	? network 192.168.100.128
	network 192.168.100.130
	broadcast 192.168.100.157
	? broadcast 192.168.100.159
	broadcast 192.168.100.255

Refer to the exhibit. Host A is assigned an IP address of 10.118.197.55/20. How many additional networked devices will this subnetwork support?

	253
	509
	1021
	2045
	? 4093

Refer to the exhibit. Which address is an inside global address?
CCNA Discovery 3: DRSEnt Module 4 - V.4

	10.1.1.1
	10.1.1.2
	? 198.18.1.55
	64.100.0.1
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DRSEnt Module 1 - V.4

Q.1 What can be found at the enterprise edge?

Internet, VPN, and WAN modules
 ? Internet, PSTN, and WAN services
 server farms and network management
 campus infrastructure, including access layer devices


Q.2 In which functional area of the Cisco Enterprise Architecture should IDS and IPS be located to detect and prevent services from accessing hosts?

 Enterprise Campus
 Edge Distribution
 ? Enterprise Edge
 Service Provider Edge


Q.3 A business consultant must use Internet websites to research a report on the e-business strategies of several firms and then electronically deliver the report to a group of clients in cities throughout the world. Which two teleworker tools can the consultant use to accomplish this project? (Choose two.)

 VoIP
 VPN
 ? HTTP
 Telnet
 email


Q.4 Which two measures help ensure that a hardware problem does not cause an outage in an enterprise LAN that supports mission critical services? (Choose two.)

 ? providing failover capability
 ? installing redundant power supplies
 purchasing more bandwidth from the ISP
 implementing broadcast containment with VLANs
 installing routers that can handle a greater amount of throughput


Q.5 Which task would typically only require services located at the access layer of the hierarchical design model?

 connecting to the corporate web server to update sales figures
 using a VPN from home to send data to the main office servers
 ? printing a meeting agenda on a local departmental network printer
 placing a VoIP call to a business associate in another country
 responding to an e-mail from a co-worker in another department


Q.6 How does a VPN work to support remote user productivity?

It uses SSL to encrypt remote user logins to the corporate intranet.
 It uses secure Telnet for remote user connections to internal network devices.
 It creates a virtual circuit that allows real-time communications between any two Internet endpoints.
 ? It uses encapsulation to create a secure tunnel for transmission of data across non-secure networks.


Q.7 A remote user needs to access a networking device on the internal network of the company. The transactions between the remote user and the device must be secure. Which protocol enables this to happen securely?

 HTTP
 ? SSH
 Telnet
 FTP


Q.8 What does VoIP provide to telecommuters?

 high-quality, live-video presentations
 ? real-time voice communications over the Internet
 ability to share desktop applications simultaneously
 secure, encrypted data transmissions through the Internet


Q.9 Which functional component of the Cisco Enterprise Architecture is responsible for hosting internal servers?

 ? enterprise campus
 enterprise edge
 service provider edge
 building distribution


Q.10 What is the purpose of the Cisco Enterprise Architecture?

 remove the three-layer hierarchical model and use a flat network approach
 ? divide the network into functional components while still maintaining the concept of Core, Distribution, and Access Layers
 provide services and functionality to the core layer by grouping various components into a single
 component located in the access layer
 reduce overall network traffic by grouping server farms, the management server, corporate intranet, and e-commerce routers in the same layer


Q.11 Which two solutions would an enterprise IT department use to facilitate secure intranet access for remote workers? (Choose two.)

 ? VPN
 NAT
 ? user authentication
 client firewall software
 packet sniffing


Q.12 Which statement describes the difference between an enterprise WAN and an enterprise extranet?

 An enterprise WAN is designed to interconnect local LANs, while an enterprise extranet is designed to interconnect remote branch offices.
? An enterprise WAN is designed to interconnect branch offices, while an enterprise extranet is designed to give access to external business partners.
 An enterprise WAN is designed to provide remote access for its teleworkers, while an enterprise extranet is designed to provide Internet connectivity for the enterprise.
 An enterprise WAN is designed to provide Internet connectivity for the enterprise, while an enterprise extranet is designed to provide remote access to the enterprise network for teleworkers.


Q.13 Why would a network administrator want to limit the size of failure domains when designing a network?

reduces the effect of Ethernet collisions
? reduces the impact of a key device or service failure
reduces the impact of Internet congestion on critical traffic
reduces the impact of blocking broadcast packets at the edge of the local network

Q.14 What is the main purpose of the Access Layer in a hierarchically designed network?

 performs routing and packet manipulation
 supplies redundancy and failover protection
 provides a high-speed, low-latency backbone
 ? serves as a network connection point for end-user devices


Q.15 Which three functions are performed at the Distribution Layer of the hierarchical network model? (Choose three.)

 forwards traffic that is destined for other networks
 isolates network problems to prevent them from affecting the Core Layer
 allows end users to access the local network
 ? provides a connection point for separate local networks
 transports large amounts of data between different geographic sites
 forwards traffic to other hosts on the same logical network


Q.16 What is a benefit of having an extranet?

 It provides web-like access to company information for employees only.
 It limits access to corporate information to secure VPN or remote access connections only.
 It allows customers and partners to access company information by connecting to a public web server.
 ? It allows suppliers and contractors to access confidential internal information using controlled external connections.


Q.17 What are two important characteristics or functions of devices at the Enterprise Edge? (Choose two.)

 providing Internet, telephone, and WAN services to the enterprise network
 providing a connection point for end-user devices to the enterprise network
 providing high-speed backbone connectivity with redundant connections
 ? providing intrusion detection and intrusion prevention to protect the network against malicious activity
 ? providing packet inspection to determine if incoming packets should be allowed on the enterprise network


Q.18 Why is TCP the preferred Layer 4 protocol for transmitting data files?

 ? TCP is more reliable than UDP because it requires lost packets to be retransmitted.
 TCP requires less processing by the source and destination hosts than UDP.
 UDP introduces delays that degrade the quality of the data applications.
 TCP ensures fast delivery because it does not require sequencing or acknowlegements.


Q.19 The ABC Corporation implements the network for its new headquarters using the Cisco Enterprise Architecture. The network administrator wants to filter the traffic from and to the outside world. Where should the administrator deploy a firewall device?

 server farm
 ? enterprise edge
 enterprise campus
 service provider edge


Q.20 Which two statements are reasons why UDP is used for voice and video traffic instead of TCP?(Choose two.)

 ? TCP requires all data packets to be delivered for the data to be usable.
 The acknowledgment process of TCP introduces delays that break the streams of data.
 ? UDP does not have mechanisms for retransmitting lost packets.
 UDP tolerates delays and compensates for them.
 TCP is a connectionless protocol that provides end-to-end reliability.
 UDP is a connection-oriented protocol that provides end-to-end reliability
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